First off, thank you for the link Richard.
I don't know why you're thanking him. The link doesn't show what it claims to show. The only evidence they have is that there are people with lymphocytopenia or immunodeficiencies. That's no mystery. It doesn't provide evidence that those immunodeficiencies were acquired.
AIDS is defined by a serious of diseases that occur with the presence of the HIV antibody.
There are certain AIDS-defining illnesses that are opportunistic infections which rarely if ever strike immunocompetent individuals. The CDC also defines AIDS by CD4+ T cell counts. What's your point? When these things occur in a previously healthy individual who is HIV+ it indicates an acquired immunodeficiency. I'll give you one guess at whta AIDS is an acronym for...
If you have Kaposi's sarcoma with the HIV anti-body, you are said to have AIDS. At the end of the day, the disease is identical and can and does occur without HIV. So then, how can we say the HIV causes Kaposi's sarcoma and thus AIDS?
HIV doesn't cause Kaposi's sarcoma and no one is saying otherwise. HIV causes AIDS, which weakens the immune system to the point where an ordinarily innocuous herpesvirus (HHV-8) causes disease. For the vast majority of people, exposure to HHV-8 doesn't cause Kaposi's sarcoma because they have intact immune systems. The same thing goes for other opportunistic infections.
At most, HIV has a correlation with AIDS, but as I said, the entire definition of AIDS is completely illogical.
Of course it's illogical to you. You know jack shit about the underlying biology and are regurgitating some tripe you picked up on the internet.
Like I said before, if you really believe all of this shit go mainline a pure sample of HIV.